First off I will state that I have looked at similar threads (such as this (referenced later) and this) yet I still don't fully understand. My situation is as follows, I am trying to report the results of the following glm:
glm(GotoPB ~ ZF_Pb + ZF_NotPb, data = DF_DL_5, family = binomial(link = "logit"))
In which the variables are:
GotoPB
= A factor with two levels: "N" or "Y"
ZF_Pb
= A numeric variable
ZF_NotPb
= A numeric variable
My summary is as follows:
Call:
glm(formula = GotoPB ~ ZF_Pb + ZF_NotPb, family = binomial(link = "logit"),
data = DF_DL_5)
Deviance Residuals:
Min 1Q Median 3Q Max
-2.4285 -1.1333 0.3953 1.1467 1.7764
Coefficients:
Estimate Std. Error z value Pr(>|z|)
(Intercept) 0.07267 0.12283 0.592 0.554124
ZF_Pb 0.24729 0.04173 5.926 3.1e-09 ***
ZF_NotPb -0.03548 0.01057 -3.357 0.000788 ***
---
Signif. codes: 0 ‘***’ 0.001 ‘**’ 0.01 ‘*’ 0.05 ‘.’ 0.1 ‘ ’ 1
(Dispersion parameter for binomial family taken to be 1)
Null deviance: 840.93 on 608 degrees of freedom
Residual deviance: 778.57 on 606 degrees of freedom
AIC: 784.57
Number of Fisher Scoring iterations: 5
Initially I understood this as: An increase in ZF_Pb increases the chance that GotoPB = Y.
But I am a bit confused on the interpretation of the intercept. Referring back to the thread referenced earlier, which states that the intercept is determined alphabetically, does that mean that my intercept is in fact GoToPB-N.
And following on that, would that mean that an increase in ZF_Pb instead equates the opposite; The higher ZF_Pb the larger the chance that GotoPB = N?
I should state that this last conclusion would be in stark contrast to what we would expect, which is why this has left me rather confused. I am worried that I do not understand these results properly. Could someone help me clarify this?