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Hutchins
Hutchins
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This thought experiment I came up with has been bugging me. Let's say I want to test the effectiveness of Drug A vs Drug B on reading speed (no placebo necessary). I KNOW for a fact that the effects of both drugs end after exactly 24 hours. No exception. No variation in human biochemistry.

Why couldn't I just administer both drugs to all participants over a two day period, but randomize the order (i.e. half get Drug A on day 1 and half get Drug B on day 2)? Like, what bias would be introduced by not having a control andtwo treatment groupgroups?

This thought experiment I came up with has been bugging me. Let's say I want to test the effectiveness of Drug A vs Drug B on reading speed (no placebo necessary). I KNOW for a fact that the effects of both drugs end after exactly 24 hours. No exception. No variation in human biochemistry.

Why couldn't I just administer both drugs to all participants over a two day period, but randomize the order (i.e. half get Drug A on day 1 and half get Drug B on day 2)? Like, what bias would be introduced by not having a control and treatment group?

This thought experiment I came up with has been bugging me. Let's say I want to test the effectiveness of Drug A vs Drug B on reading speed (no placebo necessary). I KNOW for a fact that the effects of both drugs end after exactly 24 hours. No exception. No variation in human biochemistry.

Why couldn't I just administer both drugs to all participants over a two day period, but randomize the order (i.e. half get Drug A on day 1 and half get Drug B on day 2)? Like, what bias would be introduced by not having two treatment groups?

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Hutchins
Hutchins
  • 371
  • 2
  • 4
  • 8

Do I have to randomize all drug trials?

This thought experiment I came up with has been bugging me. Let's say I want to test the effectiveness of Drug A vs Drug B on reading speed (no placebo necessary). I KNOW for a fact that the effects of both drugs end after exactly 24 hours. No exception. No variation in human biochemistry.

Why couldn't I just administer both drugs to all participants over a two day period, but randomize the order (i.e. half get Drug A on day 1 and half get Drug B on day 2)? Like, what bias would be introduced by not having a control and treatment group?