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Oct 7, 2023 at 12:36 comment added whuber @ZichaoHuang Sure: condition on $n$ and apply the law of total covariance.
Oct 7, 2023 at 11:31 comment added Zichao Huang I understand that in this case $n$ is fixed. I just encountered a very similar problem recently where $n$ was a binomial random variable rather than a constant. Could we still derive the covariance of two sums under this condition?
Oct 7, 2023 at 11:07 comment added whuber @Zichao $n$ is fixed: that's why the sum at the beginning has zero variance. You can confirm that by inspecting the code at the end following the comment "Specify the sample size."
Oct 7, 2023 at 10:35 comment added Zichao Huang Thanks for the great and insightful answer. I was wondering what if $n$ itself is a binomial random variable, i.e., $n \sim B(N, p)$?
Jul 17, 2020 at 18:09 history edited whuber CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 17, 2020 at 16:13 vote accept Kendal
Jul 17, 2020 at 14:37 comment added whuber It's just algebra. I think of it as adding and subtracting $\sum_i x_i y_i$ to $\sum_{i\ne j} x_iy_j.$ Adding in this sum gives $\sum_{i,j}x_iy_j=\left(\sum_ix_i\right)\left(\sum_jy_j\right),$ which is a multiple of $\bar{x}\bar{y}.$
Jul 17, 2020 at 4:03 comment added Kendal Thanks for this great answer. There's just one thing I'm having trouble following though. How do you go from: $\ - \frac{n(N-n)}{N^2(N-1)}\sum_{i\ne j}^N x_iy_j \\$ to $\ - \frac{n(N-n)}{N-1} \bar{x}\bar{y} + \frac{n(N-n)}{N(N-1)}\overline{xy}\\$
Jul 16, 2020 at 21:53 history answered whuber CC BY-SA 4.0