Timeline for Testing the same parameter across different models with the same covariates
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
15 events
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Aug 12, 2020 at 17:14 | vote | accept | bob | ||
Aug 8, 2020 at 3:05 | answer | added | Noah | timeline score: 1 | |
Aug 8, 2020 at 2:58 | comment | added | bob | @kjetilbhalvorsen sure, the outcomes are all binary: presence/absence of drug usage, diabetes, and heart disease. | |
Aug 8, 2020 at 2:52 | comment | added | kjetil b halvorsen♦ | Can you please give some context then? What does these three outcomes represent, in real life? | |
Aug 8, 2020 at 2:19 | comment | added | bob | @kjetilbhalvorsen I am still a bit confused, as these are three separate outcomes entirely. For a single mixed model, it is my impression that I could have responses on the same individual at different time points, but it must be the same outcome being measured at each time point. If you can clarify what you mean and want to write it up as an answer, I will be happy to upvote it! | |
Aug 8, 2020 at 2:15 | history | edited | kjetil b halvorsen♦ |
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Aug 8, 2020 at 2:14 | comment | added | kjetil b halvorsen♦ | Thanks! Then the question becomes: Are the three outcomes for individual $i$ independent? Probably not ... You could formulate this as a repeated measures model, often implemented as a mixed model. Try a lixed logistic model (glmm) with a random intercept for each subject, as a starting point. Then you can certainly formulate your hypothesis within that framework. | |
Aug 8, 2020 at 2:10 | comment | added | bob | @kjetilbhalvorsen added a further clarification! | |
Aug 8, 2020 at 2:10 | history | edited | bob | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Aug 8, 2020 at 2:09 | comment | added | kjetil b halvorsen♦ | Yes, so much is clear. But are the sample sizes equal? Are the observations from different groups of subjects/items/whatever or three different observations from each/same subject in the same one group? Please clarify! | |
Aug 8, 2020 at 2:08 | comment | added | bob | @kjetilbhalvorsen I have edited the question for clarity. $i$ now reflects the $i^{th}$ subject, and $j$ now refers to the $j^{th}$ outcome of interest, corresponding to the $j^{th}$ model. | |
Aug 8, 2020 at 2:08 | history | edited | bob | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Aug 8, 2020 at 1:54 | comment | added | kjetil b halvorsen♦ | You need to give some more information, does index $i$ refer to the same individual over the models? if so, are they independent? ... | |
Aug 8, 2020 at 1:45 | history | edited | bob | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Aug 7, 2020 at 21:20 | history | asked | bob | CC BY-SA 4.0 |