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Sep 5, 2020 at 7:52 comment added harsh poddar yes it is. cov(x,y) == 0 means that they don't have any relationship thus can't draw any regression line between them.
Sep 2, 2020 at 19:23 vote accept Jason
Sep 2, 2020 at 19:21 comment added Jason I am a fool! Thank you. Does it hold then that $a' = \frac{1}{b'}$ whenever $cov(x,y) != 0$?
Sep 2, 2020 at 5:17 review First posts
Sep 2, 2020 at 9:59
Sep 2, 2020 at 5:17 history answered harsh poddar CC BY-SA 4.0