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Sep 15, 2020 at 8:04 history edited BruceET CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 15, 2020 at 7:53 answer added BruceET timeline score: 1
Sep 15, 2020 at 3:40 comment added Thomas Lumley There aren't any distributions with finite moments of order >1 but no mean. If any given moment exists, so do all the moments of lower order.
Sep 15, 2020 at 2:52 comment added Matthew H. The sampling distribution of the sample median $\hat{M}$ is approximately normal with mean $m$ and variance $\frac{1}{4n(f(m))^2}$ where $n$ is the sample size, $m$ is the population median, and $f$ is the pdf for the observations i.e. $$\hat{M} \sim N(m,1/4n(f(m))^2)$$ This approximation is good for $n\geq 30$. Is this what you're looking for?
Sep 15, 2020 at 2:30 history edited Frank CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 15, 2020 at 2:13 history asked Frank CC BY-SA 4.0