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Oct 11, 2020 at 10:41 history edited Christian Hennig CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 11, 2020 at 1:28 vote accept James Ronald
Oct 10, 2020 at 21:19 comment added Christian Hennig Note that if you run two tests and pick the larger $T$, this is different from just running one test, and you need to correct for multiple testing. You can't just try to find significance until you have a large enough $T$. This is where Bonferroni comes in. So running a second test can only make your result "more significant" if the second p-value is less than half of the first one. The proper way to use "more independent observations" than used for $T_1$ would be to define a single aggregated test, rather than combining the two separate p-values; Fisher's method is one way of doing that.
Oct 10, 2020 at 21:13 comment added Christian Hennig First question: Not quite. My point is that if you have two tests, there is no trivial definition of what exactly the outcomes are that are "less in line with the $H_0$ than what was observed". One can argue that $\{T_1 \ge t_1\}\cap \{T_2\ge t_2\}$ will not cover them all, whereas the union set covers too much. There is no such thing as a single well defined "correct" p-value in this case. Obviously $P\{T_1\ge t_1\}$ is still the p-value of the first test, and it's the same as running the second test and ignoring it, but why would you want to do that?
Oct 10, 2020 at 21:06 comment added Christian Hennig Re Bonferroni: 2min means twice the minimum, correct. Wikipedia writes about Bonferroni that $p_i\le \alpha/m$ rejects the null hypothesis. $m$ is 2 here, and if all $p_i$ test the same null hypothesis, you can just consider the minimum, so comparing the minimum $p_i$ to $\alpha/2$ is just the same as having a p-value $2\min p$ (that for testing at $\alpha$-level has to be compared with $\alpha$).
Oct 10, 2020 at 20:59 comment added James Ronald Also, in the Bonferroni corrected p-value equation you gave, what does the $2min$ notation mean? Or does that just mean multiplying the minimum of those two probabilities by by $2$? The equation seems to be different on Wikipedia
Oct 10, 2020 at 20:53 comment added James Ronald Thank you for the detailed answer, I think I understand. Just to make sure I understand: so problem with getting the probability of $ \{ { T1\geq t1} \cap {T2 \geq t2 } \} $ is that it will not include all of the observations that are less than $T1$ but greater than $T2$ (assuming $T1 \geq T2$), even though these should be included? If so, then is the correct p-value always just equal to $ P( \{ T1 \geq t1 \} )$ (again assuming $T1 \geq T2$)?
Oct 10, 2020 at 15:08 history edited Christian Hennig CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 10, 2020 at 10:37 history edited Christian Hennig CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 10, 2020 at 10:26 history edited Christian Hennig CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 10, 2020 at 10:06 history edited Christian Hennig CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 10, 2020 at 9:44 history answered Christian Hennig CC BY-SA 4.0