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Dec 19, 2020 at 8:29 comment added Jack Education does change in the model. If someone gets a university degree, hence an increase in their salaries later on, the model can catch it. So if i understood you right, it is plausible to put the macro indicator in the model? What i mean is, whether an economic expansion/contraction gives more benefit to one educational group over the other
Dec 19, 2020 at 1:26 comment added dimitriy Does education change for a person over time? If it does not, the direct effect is not separately identified (it gets removed by the demeaning). The interaction coefficient may still be estimable, but it's not clear what plausible means here. Do you mean plausibly causal given what else in the model and some assumptions about how people choose their schooling?
Dec 18, 2020 at 23:42 history edited Jack CC BY-SA 4.0
added 140 characters in body; edited tags
Dec 18, 2020 at 20:30 comment added Fato39 Hi jad, can you please tag this question with the software you are using?
Dec 18, 2020 at 17:18 review First posts
Dec 18, 2020 at 20:30
Dec 18, 2020 at 17:17 history asked Jack CC BY-SA 4.0