Timeline for Inverting a negative correlation
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jan 6, 2021 at 18:22 | comment | added | Nick Cox | Yes, so long as you explain what you are doing. | |
| Jan 6, 2021 at 18:01 | answer | added | jkpate | timeline score: 5 | |
| Jan 6, 2021 at 17:35 | comment | added | Jeremy Miles | If they would have been reversed, then yes, reverse them. E.g. if one study measure is 'happiness' and another measure is 'depression' then you should reverse them so they are all the same direction. But you shouldn't reverse them just because they are negative. | |
| Jan 6, 2021 at 17:17 | history | edited | Davidd | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 311 characters in body
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| Jan 6, 2021 at 3:26 | comment | added | Izzy | Can you tell us a little more about what you are trying to use these correlation coefficients in? You mention a model -- are you using correlation coefficient as a covariate in another model, and if so, can you say a bit more about that? | |
| Jan 6, 2021 at 3:06 | history | asked | Davidd | CC BY-SA 4.0 |