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Feb 24, 2021 at 18:50 answer added gung - Reinstate Monica timeline score: 2
Feb 24, 2021 at 18:50 history edited gung - Reinstate Monica
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Feb 24, 2021 at 18:07 history edited Feri CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 24, 2021 at 18:04 comment added Feri Yes, let's say that there is no variation in the system. The measurement error is only in $Y$, and there is no direct estimate of it. I am asking to estimate it based on different values of $y$ for a single $x$.
Feb 24, 2021 at 15:44 comment added gung - Reinstate Monica You are assuming that there is no irreducible variation in the universe (or at least in this system)? Is there measurement error in $X$, $Y$, or both? Do you have an external estimate of the measurement error?
Feb 24, 2021 at 4:05 review First posts
Feb 24, 2021 at 5:06
Feb 24, 2021 at 3:59 history asked Feri CC BY-SA 4.0