Timeline for Population covariance, are these two formulas equivalent?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
16 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| S Apr 1, 2021 at 20:00 | history | bounty ended | CommunityBot | ||
| S Apr 1, 2021 at 20:00 | history | notice removed | CommunityBot | ||
| Mar 31, 2021 at 14:50 | vote | accept | Steve | ||
| Mar 30, 2021 at 2:48 | history | edited | kjetil b halvorsen♦ |
edited tags
|
|
| Mar 29, 2021 at 18:00 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackStats/status/1376595020984225794 | ||
| Mar 29, 2021 at 16:35 | answer | added | Aksakal | timeline score: 2 | |
| Mar 29, 2021 at 15:50 | comment | added | Hunaphu | @whuber that is not true. | |
| Mar 28, 2021 at 22:34 | history | edited | Ben | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Major edit to improve mathematical notation and clarity of question
|
| Mar 28, 2021 at 22:31 | answer | added | Ben | timeline score: 4 | |
| Mar 26, 2021 at 9:36 | answer | added | carlo | timeline score: 0 | |
| Mar 24, 2021 at 19:08 | comment | added | whuber♦ | The two formulas are just different notations for the same thing. | |
| S Mar 24, 2021 at 18:57 | history | bounty started | Steve | ||
| S Mar 24, 2021 at 18:57 | history | notice added | Steve | Draw attention | |
| Mar 12, 2021 at 16:14 | comment | added | Steve | I meant like if I had the entire population collected, so all N observations, would these formula actually be equivalent by some result like the Law of Large numbers? or is there still a substantive difference in what is being assumed using one formula over the other? | |
| Mar 12, 2021 at 15:10 | comment | added | whuber♦ | Could you explain what might be "converging" here? | |
| Mar 12, 2021 at 1:20 | history | asked | Steve | CC BY-SA 4.0 |