Timeline for Why was Bayes' Theory not accepted/popular historically until the late 20th century?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
11 events
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Apr 8, 2021 at 16:24 | comment | added | Nick Cox | Texts by Anders Hald, Stephen Stigler and Erich Lehmann are among leading historical references. | |
Apr 8, 2021 at 16:19 | comment | added | Nick Cox | There are explanations on different levels. Here are two further details, in practice more important than might seem right. First, the word subjective was fated to divide people into opposing camps. Second, personalities. Several prominent Bayesians were idiosyncratic, quirky, non-joiners, sometimes delighting in controversy and even polemics. As such they were less likely to have influential students or collaborators. This seems to have applied in varying degrees to H. Jeffreys, B. De Finetti, L.J. Savage, I.J. Good, E.T. Jaynes and even D.V. Lindley from the 1930s for some while. | |
Apr 8, 2021 at 16:02 | answer | added | CheeseBurger | timeline score: 0 | |
Apr 8, 2021 at 15:00 | comment | added | kjetil b halvorsen♦ | Can you add references to what you ave read? | |
Apr 8, 2021 at 14:45 | history | edited | kjetil b halvorsen♦ |
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Apr 8, 2021 at 13:15 | comment | added | whuber♦ | A good start would be to review relevant sections of Todhunter's history (1865), with a focus on Bayes and Laplace. | |
Apr 8, 2021 at 10:25 | comment | added | N. Virgo | I don't know for sure, but my impression from ET Jaynes' papers is that it actually was used and accepted from its invention up until around the early-mid 20th century when frequentism arose and became the mainstream view. Before that nobody was really a "Bayesian" or a "frequentist", they just used whatever worked. | |
Apr 8, 2021 at 8:20 | review | Close votes | |||
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Apr 8, 2021 at 6:10 | review | First posts | |||
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Apr 8, 2021 at 6:10 | comment | added | user2974951 | Coincides with rise in computational power. | |
Apr 8, 2021 at 6:07 | history | asked | rztxx | CC BY-SA 4.0 |