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Apr 23, 2021 at 16:10 comment added zbicyclist Yes, the autocorrelation between the two variables. Variable 1 is the unlagged series, Variable 2 is he lagged series.
Apr 23, 2021 at 13:14 comment added user107224 @zbicyclist I thought particularly get this. When you talk about correlation between variables are you referring to the autocorrelation between two points on the series?
Apr 23, 2021 at 8:26 history edited user107224 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 22, 2021 at 22:46 history edited user107224 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 22, 2021 at 18:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackStats/status/1385292374566445059
Apr 22, 2021 at 12:42 comment added zbicyclist It works because the correlation of variable 1 with variable 2 is the same as the correlation of variable 2 with variable 1. It may be easier not to think of this as time, but as distance, which is clearly reversible, e.g. the correlation of temperature of two points a mile apart is the same no matter which direction you are considering.
Apr 22, 2021 at 12:34 comment added user107224 @RobHyndman hi thanks for the reply. Why does this work though? For example, with a normal model, we have $X_{t+1}=f(X_t)$, which makes sense since we are conditioning on past information, but with backcasting, $X_t=f(X_{t+1})$ which means conditioning on the future?
Apr 22, 2021 at 9:54 history edited user107224 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 22, 2021 at 5:20 comment added Rob Hyndman See otexts.com/fpp3/backcasting.html
Apr 22, 2021 at 2:51 history asked user107224 CC BY-SA 4.0