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Apr 27, 2021 at 15:02 answer added kjetil b halvorsen timeline score: 2
Apr 27, 2021 at 14:47 comment added kjetil b halvorsen stats.stackexchange.com/questions/486053/…
Apr 27, 2021 at 0:59 comment added Chris Haug If you could link the paper, it could be helpful. A priori you could use a variable whose log is skew-normal to model prices but not returns, so either your description is incorrect or that's not what they mean by "log-skew normal".
Apr 26, 2021 at 20:06 comment added whuber Most such terminology is borrowed from that of the lognormal distribution. It's the opposite of what you might think: $Z$ has a lognormal distribution exactly when $\log(Z)$ has a normal distribution. That is, $Z$ is the exponential ("antilog") of a normal variate. Similarly, one would expect a variable with a "log skew-normal distribution" to be the exponential of a skew-normal variable. But not all authors get that right: the context matters. However, since many skew-normal variates can take on negative values, it's unlikely anyone would take the logarithm of one.
Apr 26, 2021 at 20:02 comment added Alexis +1 Welcome to CV, John Doe! Your question inspired me to ask Is there a generalized concept of noncentrality of a distribution?. I think your question might be improved if you edit (link at lower left) to add a citation to the paper you mention in your first sentence.
Apr 26, 2021 at 18:57 history asked John Doe CC BY-SA 4.0