Timeline for Standardized bivariate linear regression coefficients > 1?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| May 19, 2021 at 13:32 | comment | added | whuber♦ | It's a consequence of the Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality (or any equivalent inequality). | |
| May 19, 2021 at 0:56 | vote | accept | user3138766 | ||
| May 19, 2021 at 0:51 | answer | added | Demetri Pananos | timeline score: 3 | |
| May 19, 2021 at 0:40 | comment | added | user3138766 | But why is that the case? | |
| May 19, 2021 at 0:24 | comment | added | Demetri Pananos | When both variables are standardized, the slope is the same as pearson's correlation which is always smaller than 1 in magnitude. See here | |
| May 18, 2021 at 23:12 | history | edited | user3138766 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| May 18, 2021 at 23:03 | history | asked | user3138766 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |