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Jun 7, 2021 at 17:33 history edited Ariel CC BY-SA 4.0
adding more intuition
Jun 6, 2021 at 14:24 comment added Ariel I think perhaps you misunderstood my answer. I was trying to make the case that these two measures are complimentary in that they are essentially measuring different aspects of the mutual dependence of the two random variables. As I pointed out in the answer, complete correlation, $\rho=\pm 1$ sends $I\to\infty$. Again, you should also read this answer which explains some more of the intuition behind the two quantities.
Jun 6, 2021 at 13:59 comment added Antichain Thanks for you comment - it's nice to see how these are derived. Are there any specific connections between them (maybe some kind of transformation that turns one into the other, or an intuitive relationship between them?) They can be re-arranged as: $Z = -\frac{1}{2}(\ln(1-\rho) - \ln(1+\rho))$ $I =-\frac{1}{2}(\ln(1-\rho) + \ln(1+\rho))$ This seems too similar to be just a coincidence.
Jun 6, 2021 at 3:21 history answered Ariel CC BY-SA 4.0