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Mar 3, 2022 at 19:48 history edited kjetil b halvorsen CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 11, 2021 at 23:01 vote accept Pat Taggart
Sep 10, 2021 at 15:45 answer added Robert timeline score: 3
Sep 9, 2021 at 21:15 comment added COOLSerdash $\nu$ is parametrized as $\nu = p_1/(1 - p_1)$, the odds of a $1$. Fitting is done on the log-odds (logit) scale. So in order to calculate $p_1$, you have to take $\nu/(1 + \nu)$, as explained in the post you linked to.
Sep 9, 2021 at 20:46 comment added Demetri Pananos Are you sure they aren't on the logit scale?
Sep 9, 2021 at 20:40 history asked Pat Taggart CC BY-SA 4.0