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Sep 22, 2021 at 17:32 comment added Alexis @SextusEmpiricus Yeah, I am down with that. :) That said, I think the assumption my answer opens with captures this. Your answer was clear about your "it depends approach," and mine is addressing the question as one of validly circular measure → linear measure.
Sep 22, 2021 at 7:14 comment added Sextus Empiricus An example is the OP's where he is looking to the difference with respect to his prediction. The point of his prediction is the privileged point which can be set at zero. -- I agree you can still not linearize when there is circular arithmetics that plays a role. But this may not be the situation when the deflections are only small (such that you never reach beyond the other side of the circle). So there are two reasons why linearizing can be bad 1) circular arithmetics 2) no necessary privileged zero. However, you cannot say 'you cannot (ever) linearize'. It depends on those two points.
Sep 21, 2021 at 21:36 comment added Alexis @SextusEmpiricus I think I see your point. Can you provide an example of such privilege "assuming the [360°] circularity of that measure is valid"? I understand that one can have an actually linear measure that for some reason got represented as a circular variable, and you want to undo that, but assuming the circularity of the original measure is actually valid where would such a privilege emerge?
Sep 21, 2021 at 20:32 comment added Sextus Empiricus You can have problems in which case a point is privileged. For instance a starting point or a control.
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Sep 20, 2021 at 16:05 history answered Alexis CC BY-SA 4.0