Skip to main content
3 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Oct 16, 2021 at 14:46 comment added jwimberley I'm curious about the result of a regression (or fit incorporating $C_1$'s sampling uncertainty) $\log C_2 \sim \log C_1$; it it would be good to see that the data is consistent with the assumption that $C_2$ is a fixed proportion of $C_1$ (i.e. that the slope in this regression is consistent with 1; the intercept would correspond to the decayed proportion, assumed to be constant since $\Delta t$ is fixed). Since each concentration is non-negative, assuming log-normal sampling uncertainty seems reasonable.
Oct 16, 2021 at 14:24 comment added Peder Holman I agree that this approach seems very unusual. Some clarification is needed. The pharmacokinetics of the drug in question has already been well characterised in previous litterature. The blood samples used in this study were acquired by the police from car drivers suspected of impaired driving. The samples were never intended for pharmacokinetic studies. Nevertheless, we wanted to see if anything sensible could be said about the elimination rate at the time of blood sampling, in this specific population, by looking at only two samples taken a very short time apart.
Oct 16, 2021 at 13:45 history answered AdamO CC BY-SA 4.0