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Oct 26, 2021 at 5:23 comment added Richard Hardy Meaningful in what sense? If I have two identical data generating processes, chances are they will not generate the same sample of data sample with the same ES (or different samples with the same ES).
Oct 26, 2021 at 3:31 comment added user225256 If the distribution is truly fixed, then I think any difference is meaningful.
Oct 20, 2021 at 18:16 comment added Richard Hardy Unlike the more complicated question in the linked thread, here I assume a fixed distribution for all of the 1000 data points. So I guess there is no jumpy process, just 1000 i.i.d. observations.
Oct 20, 2021 at 17:57 comment added user225256 What can you assume about the distribution of the data? If you generate it using a jumpy process, then the numerical instability in calculated VaRs and expected shortfalls probably makes the whole question intractable.
Oct 20, 2021 at 17:20 comment added Richard Hardy I simulated the difference between a pair of ES values each estimated from a sample from the same $N(0,1)$ distribution. The distribution I got is indeed roughly normal. Anyway, I am not really comfortable with an assumption of bivariate normality (or lognormality) for the data.
Oct 20, 2021 at 16:57 comment added user225256 My intuition is that the difference between two similar distributions should be roughly normal, which is why I said that this a reasonable first null hypothesis, but I don't have a formal argument for it. If the normality is a big concern you can generate lots of $M,N,R,S,T$ from the distributions and just see where $f(M_0,N_0,S_0,T_0)$ fits in the quantiles for $f(M,N,S,T)$.
Oct 20, 2021 at 16:41 comment added Richard Hardy What is the intuition (or formal argument) for $f$ being roughly normal?
Oct 20, 2021 at 16:11 history answered user225256 CC BY-SA 4.0