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Mar 10, 2022 at 5:44 comment added RAFisherman 1) Good point, thanks! 2) Thanks - that last point reflected my true misunderstanding. This caused me to re-run the above simulation with different alpha levels. When I do that, the intervals don't "stop overlapping" at 80% power, so my theory was just a coincidence. Instead, I should probably simulate the confidence interval of the difference.
Mar 10, 2022 at 5:43 vote accept RAFisherman
Mar 7, 2022 at 7:37 comment added num_39 2) " If comparing non-overlapping quantiles reflects the power of an exact test, why do they intersect perfectly where I'd achieve 80% power for an approximate test?" Non-overlapping quantiles are not an exact test of power. For the relation between confidence intervals and tests of significance, see towardsdatascience.com/…
Mar 7, 2022 at 7:20 comment added num_39 1) When you take thousands of replications for g1, your empirical quantiles will essentially match the theoretical quantiles for the fixed proportion of 0.7. So it's as if you're comparing g0 to a fixed proportion, which is a binomial test.
Mar 7, 2022 at 6:57 history edited RAFisherman CC BY-SA 4.0
added 2138 characters in body; edited tags
Mar 6, 2022 at 22:54 history edited RAFisherman CC BY-SA 4.0
Reversed power and beta typo
Mar 6, 2022 at 12:27 answer added num_39 timeline score: 1
S Mar 6, 2022 at 7:18 review First questions
Mar 6, 2022 at 14:37
S Mar 6, 2022 at 7:18 history asked RAFisherman CC BY-SA 4.0