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Mar 10, 2022 at 13:21 history edited EdM CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 10, 2022 at 5:06 vote accept Peder Holman
Mar 10, 2022 at 5:06 comment added Peder Holman Aha, of course! Thank you for clearing that up. You have answered my question perfectly, much appreciated!
Mar 9, 2022 at 18:04 history edited EdM CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 9, 2022 at 17:57 comment added EdM @PederHolman with an assumed 0.1 CV in the original scale, you have an assumed SD in the log scale of 0.1 and thus an assumed variance of $0.1^2 = 0.01$ in the log scale. The variance of the difference between 2 uncorrelated observations each with a variance of 0.01 is 0.02.
Mar 9, 2022 at 17:50 comment added Peder Holman Thank you! This is very helpful, but how do I obtain the variances of log(x1) and log(x2) if all the information I have is cv <- .1; x1_measured <- 100; x2_measured <- 50? I can simulate values of x1_true by dividing x1_measured by rnorm(1e6, 1, cv) and then simply use var(x1_true) to find the variance, but how do I find it without simulation? Won't the distribution of x1_true be a kind of reciprocal normal distribution?
Mar 9, 2022 at 17:18 history edited EdM CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 9, 2022 at 17:13 history answered EdM CC BY-SA 4.0