Timeline for In a randomized trial, should we exclude random intercepts and use only slopes?
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6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Apr 13, 2022 at 4:08 | comment | added | Demetri Pananos | @Re-searcher The difference conditioned on group membership is not to be tested, but there are differences between patients (ignoring group membership). Modelling that difference seems like a good idea, especially if you are using repeated measures. | |
| Apr 13, 2022 at 3:36 | comment | added | Todd D | Is this a cross-over design? | |
| Apr 13, 2022 at 0:43 | comment | added | Re-searcher | In randomized trials, any changes at t=0 are ignored by definition of randomization even if they exist observably - treated as an artefact and ignored. We must not test them by any tests, because this is pointless. They all come from a single population there. That's why I guess it should work also for mixed models. | |
| Apr 12, 2022 at 20:06 | answer | added | Björn | timeline score: 4 | |
| Apr 12, 2022 at 19:44 | comment | added | Demetri Pananos | I don't really buy the reasoning. The fact is that patients really do vary at baseline. It seems odd to me to allow for heterogeneity in the response at time $t>0$, but not at $t=0$. I don't really see a good reason to prefer $t=0$ to be treated differently. | |
| Apr 12, 2022 at 19:26 | history | asked | Re-searcher | CC BY-SA 4.0 |