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Jun 9, 2022 at 6:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackStats/status/1534777322091560960
Jun 7, 2022 at 19:01 comment added Henry $\bar X$ actually converges to $\mu_1$ (the law of large numbers) and so long as this is not $0$ you will have $\frac1{\bar X}$ converging to $\frac{1}{\mu_1}$. But $\overline {\frac1{ X}}$ will behave differently
S Jun 7, 2022 at 18:25 history became hot network question
S Jun 7, 2022 at 18:25 history became hot network question
Jun 7, 2022 at 12:18 vote accept CommunityBot
Jun 7, 2022 at 11:42 history edited user340483 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 7, 2022 at 11:14 answer added Sextus Empiricus timeline score: 3
Jun 7, 2022 at 10:49 comment added user2974951 And mean and variance of reciprocal normal distribution
Jun 7, 2022 at 10:49 comment added user2974951 Also Mean and variance of the reciprocal of a random variable
Jun 7, 2022 at 10:36 comment added user2974951 en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inverse_distribution
Jun 7, 2022 at 10:25 history asked user340483 CC BY-SA 4.0