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Aug 16, 2022 at 23:01 vote accept RiXaTorAgu
Aug 14, 2022 at 18:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackStats/status/1558876114612789248
Aug 14, 2022 at 16:09 answer added whuber timeline score: 4
Aug 13, 2022 at 8:31 comment added Sextus Empiricus @whuber the references might not be so bad. For many practical cases the distribution of $X/Y$ might not need to be like a pathological distribution without moments (this happens when $Y$ is only approximately normal distributed and does not approach zero unlike the normal distribution by which it is approximated). In such practical cases an approximation with a normal distribution does not need to be so bad.
Aug 12, 2022 at 18:39 history edited RiXaTorAgu CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 12, 2022 at 14:11 comment added RiXaTorAgu @whuber I was trying to build a known distribution from the samples, like a Gamma or something like that but so far I haven't achieved anything...
Aug 12, 2022 at 13:52 history edited RiXaTorAgu CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 12, 2022 at 13:31 comment added whuber @user2974951 Those references might lead readers to confuse the random variables $X_i/Y_i$ with the ratio of means $\mu_1/\mu_2.$ What the question seeks is an estimator $t_n(X_1,\ldots, Y_n)$ for which $E[t_n(X_1,\ldots,Y_n)]=\rho.$ What is relevant about your points is that it would be hopeless to construct $t_n$ out of ratios of the variables or of their sample means, suggesting an unbiased estimator does not exist. When we couple that observation with the idea of using a minimal sufficient statistic, which obviously is $(\bar X,\bar Y),$ we're well on the way to a (negative) solution.
Aug 12, 2022 at 6:22 comment added user2974951 en.wikipedia.org/wiki/…
Aug 12, 2022 at 6:21 comment added user2974951 Related Is the ratio distribution of two normally distributed variables ever normal?
S Aug 12, 2022 at 5:26 review First questions
Aug 12, 2022 at 5:54
S Aug 12, 2022 at 5:26 history asked RiXaTorAgu CC BY-SA 4.0