Timeline for Linear regression model with a distribution over regression equations
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
13 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Oct 1, 2022 at 22:12 | vote | accept | Luca Gi | ||
Oct 1, 2022 at 22:12 | answer | added | Luca Gi | timeline score: 0 | |
Oct 1, 2022 at 22:12 | history | edited | Luca Gi | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
deleted 267 characters in body
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Sep 2, 2022 at 15:13 | history | edited | kjetil b halvorsen♦ |
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Sep 2, 2022 at 9:00 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackStats/status/1565625587032629255 | ||
Sep 1, 2022 at 21:23 | history | edited | Luca Gi | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
Provided an additional reasoning
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Sep 1, 2022 at 20:45 | history | edited | whuber♦ |
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Sep 1, 2022 at 20:19 | comment | added | Luca Gi | Yes, that's what I mean. Thanks. | |
Sep 1, 2022 at 20:17 | comment | added | whuber♦ | It wouldn't make sense for $\theta$ to be a random variable. Would you mean that there is a lurking random Bernoulli$(\theta)$ variable independent of $e_t$ and that $y_t = kx_t\beta + e_t$ conditional on $U=1$ and otherwise $y_t = k_t\gamma + e_t$ when $U=0$? | |
Sep 1, 2022 at 19:14 | comment | added | Luca Gi | w.p. is standard notation for 'with probability,' it denotes a random variable. Not sure how the error term being the same is relevant, the error term is defined as the difference between $y_t$ and the conditional mean. Thanks. | |
Sep 1, 2022 at 17:49 | comment | added | whuber♦ | What does "w.p." mean?? Are the apparent error terms "$e_t$" the same quantities in both cases or not? | |
Sep 1, 2022 at 17:28 | history | edited | Luca Gi | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Sep 1, 2022 at 16:23 | history | asked | Luca Gi | CC BY-SA 4.0 |