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Sep 18, 2022 at 20:20 comment added Nick Cox The context here is linear regression in which an ideal condition is normal (Gaussian) distribution of errors (loosely, residuals). In contrast, invocation here of an inverse Gaussian is a complete red herring. FWIW, the suggestion appears to confuse modeling a series in time after a dramatic event with fitting a probability distribution; also the inverse Gaussian is usually a two-parameter distribution.
Sep 18, 2022 at 13:40 comment added user78229 @whuber Thanks for your comment. Having read this literature, I stand by my remark.
Sep 16, 2022 at 13:13 comment added Nick Cox Trivially, INT is best avoided as an abbreviation here, as in many languages and environments it is the name of a function that truncates to integer.
Sep 16, 2022 at 12:55 comment added whuber @Mike This is not the relevant meaning of "inverse." ("Making it appear more normally distributed" gives a strong clue as to the intention.) Researching the IGD will just take the OP on a fruitless and likely frustrating chase. The relevant sense is that of applying the inverse of the standard Normal CDF $\Phi$ to a suitably centered and scaled version of the data.
Sep 16, 2022 at 11:48 answer added Maarten Buis timeline score: 4
Sep 16, 2022 at 11:14 comment added user78229 To make it simple, use these keywords inverse gaussian distribution in a Google Books search, multiple items will be returned. Basically, the IGD is a one parameter distribution which can be used in modeling explosive natural phenomena such as the flow of water from a bursting dam or sales upon release of an 80s Michael Jackson hit record.
S Sep 16, 2022 at 11:09 review First questions
Sep 16, 2022 at 11:16
S Sep 16, 2022 at 11:09 history asked 7-x CC BY-SA 4.0