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Nov 13, 2022 at 22:54 comment added utobi Glad to see it helps. Sure. Indeed, you will typically get a higher $p$-value (and wider CIs) since the $t$ distribution has heavier tails than the standard normal. However, this will help you prevent your test from having higher $\alpha$ (or the CI to have confidence than 1-$\alpha$ lower) when you are not too far from the limiting normal distribution.
Nov 13, 2022 at 22:46 vote accept jglad
Nov 13, 2022 at 22:44 comment added jglad Thank you for the excellent and thorough answer! This helps a lot. If you don't mind me asking a follow-up question--let's assume that we are indeed using the $t_{n-1}$ distribution instead of the $N(0,1)$ distribution as you mention some statisticians prefer. In the given example (and following the assumptions of Case IV), does it make sense to express the $p$-value as $P(t_{35} \geq 3.428571 ) = 0.00078$, similar to the expression in Case I?
Nov 13, 2022 at 21:41 history answered utobi CC BY-SA 4.0