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May 14, 2023 at 6:53 comment added ehudk @Iterator516, unfortunately yes. Confounders should cause the treatment and outcome and therefore they must precede both. You will need unreasonable assumptions to claim post-treatment variables can be valid confounders. Moreover, adjusting for post-treatment factors usually only creates more bias since you might adjust on a mediator or a collider.
May 11, 2023 at 14:09 comment added Iterator516 I have edited my question to specify that the data for confounders are available in ONLY the post-intervention period. Does that change your comment, @ehudk?
May 11, 2023 at 14:08 history edited Iterator516 CC BY-SA 4.0
emphasized that data about confounders are in post-intervention only
May 11, 2023 at 7:10 comment added ehudk So I understand you just don't have outcome (sales) at baseline. That should be ok for a randomized controlled experiment. Might be less statistically efficient (including outcome pre-treatment can account for lots of the variance in outcome post-treatment and therefore make the treatment effect estimation more precise), but that's not necessary for unbiased effect estimation.
May 9, 2023 at 21:10 answer added dcoy timeline score: 1
May 8, 2023 at 13:36 comment added Iterator516 Yes they are. Assume "nice" numbers and "good" conditions for everything. I'm trying to pinpoint the problem to JUST the lack of pre-intervention data.
May 8, 2023 at 5:09 comment added Demetri Pananos Are these 100 stores randomly selected?
May 8, 2023 at 3:56 history asked Iterator516 CC BY-SA 4.0