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Oct 13, 2023 at 2:55 answer added Alecos Papadopoulos timeline score: 2
Oct 2, 2023 at 14:37 comment added whn yes i understand that for classical estimators as the empiric mean but in this case I don't get it. I think, in the described problem, it is more a convergence problem equivalent to "Convergence in probability implies a likely L^2 decrease"
Sep 28, 2023 at 13:09 comment added Alberto pretty much for the same reason why CLT has a $.../n$ in the variance
S Sep 28, 2023 at 13:05 review First questions
Sep 28, 2023 at 13:22
S Sep 28, 2023 at 13:05 history asked whn CC BY-SA 4.0