Skip to main content
13 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Nov 27, 2023 at 15:35 comment added Aksakal @whuber, agreed, they are mapped to the same set.
Nov 27, 2023 at 15:30 comment added whuber @Aksakal However, we cannot conclude that the statements A and B are equal. It is only supposed they specify the same set. For instance, let A be the assertion "x is a negative real number and x is the square of a real number" and let B be the assertion "x is a real zero of the exponential function." Each can be shown to imply the other, despite such different formulations.
Nov 27, 2023 at 15:29 comment added Galen Computing probabilities of events reminds me of stats.stackexchange.com/questions/536049/…
Nov 27, 2023 at 15:27 comment added Aksakal @whuber, the first thing to say here is that A=B, the rest follows
Nov 27, 2023 at 15:10 comment added whuber The Axiom of Specification of set theory asserts these two statements determine the same event. Thus, you are asking whether the probability of an event equals itself. Equivalently, you are asking whether the probability of an event depends on how it is specified. I bet you can answer either one of these questions correctly! @Tim Your translation of this question into propositional logic is erroneous.
Nov 27, 2023 at 15:08 history reopened whuber
Nov 27, 2023 at 14:58 answer added Mathemagician777 timeline score: 0
Nov 27, 2023 at 14:58 history closed User1865345
R Carnell
whuber
Not suitable for this site
Nov 27, 2023 at 14:25 comment added Robin @Tim: What do you mean exactly with "are 𝐵→𝐴 and 𝐵∧𝐴 the same statement"? If A and B are equivalent, evidently 𝐵→𝐴 is true. I don't understand what you mean, sorry
Nov 27, 2023 at 14:17 comment added Tim Use logic to answer it yourself are $B \to A$ and $B \land A$ the same statement? en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boolean_algebra
Nov 27, 2023 at 13:16 review Close votes
Nov 27, 2023 at 14:58
S Nov 27, 2023 at 12:55 review First questions
Nov 27, 2023 at 12:56
S Nov 27, 2023 at 12:55 history asked Robin CC BY-SA 4.0