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Dec 17, 2023 at 20:14 comment added Sextus Empiricus @Andy yes, see also for instance this link stats.stackexchange.com/questions/87570/… or Why are the Least-Squares and Maximum-Likelihood methods of regression not equivalent when the errors are not normally distributed? which sort of indirectly asks about the equivalence between least squares and mle with Gaussian errors, by asking it in a negative/complementairy sense (asking why other cases are not equivalent).
Dec 17, 2023 at 19:52 vote accept Andy
Dec 17, 2023 at 17:53 comment added Andy Since the errors are independent the probability for $\epsilon_1,\epsilon_2, ...\epsilon_n$ becomes the product of N normal distributions? Taking the natural logarithm of this product it becomes a sum and the ln cancels the exp?
Dec 15, 2023 at 22:39 history edited Sextus Empiricus CC BY-SA 4.0
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Dec 15, 2023 at 22:24 history answered Sextus Empiricus CC BY-SA 4.0