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Mar 3 at 0:27 answer added Luis Mendo timeline score: 0
Mar 2 at 23:53 history edited Luis Mendo CC BY-SA 4.0
Typo
Feb 28 at 21:55 comment added Sextus Empiricus You compare it to the bounds based on the Cramer Rao bounds of the $\hat{p}_i$? That's the lowest variance you can get for an unbiased estimate.
Feb 28 at 21:49 comment added Luis Mendo @Sextus Yes, that is the variance of $\hat d$. But then what do we compare that variance with, in order to compute efficiency?
Feb 28 at 21:33 comment added Sextus Empiricus Isn't the variance of $\hat{d}$ just the sum of the variance of $\hat{p}_1$ and $\hat{p}_2$? And as a consequence, the limit of the variance of $\hat{d}$ is the sum of the limits of the variance of $\hat{p}_1$ and $\hat{p}_2$.
Feb 28 at 21:00 answer added Thomas Lumley timeline score: 2
Feb 28 at 19:19 history asked Luis Mendo CC BY-SA 4.0