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Oct 6 at 21:00 comment added Sextus Empiricus Ah, I can see how it follows from the definition, and it is more tautological than an inference. I was confused by the phrasing, "this shows", I thought I was missing something.
Oct 6 at 20:46 comment added User1865345 What do you infer when $f$ is $\mu$-integrable? $f$ is $\mu$-integrable on $D$ if and only if both $\int_D f^+~\mathrm d\mu$ and $\int_D f^-~\mathrm d\mu$ are finite. This follows from the definition of integrability of $f.$
Oct 6 at 19:42 comment added Sextus Empiricus "which shows $|f|$ is $\mu$-integrable on $D.$" I don't see directly how it follows that '$|f|$ is integrable if $f$ is integrable' from the mere equation that splits up the integral into two integrals with unsigned functions.
Oct 6 at 11:42 comment added User1865345 While these are universally used in the same sense throughout the literature and OP seems to be aware of that, for future readers, I have added their definition @SextusEmpiricus.
Oct 6 at 11:39 history edited User1865345 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 5 at 8:54 history answered User1865345 CC BY-SA 4.0