Timeline for Is it problematic to use percentages to describe a sample with less than 100 people?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
18 events
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| Nov 29 at 12:53 | comment | added | Sextus Empiricus | @fgrieu you mean $8 \cdot 10^1 \%$ :)? | |
| Nov 29 at 12:45 | comment | added | fgrieu | And 80% of percentages are made up on writing. | |
| Nov 29 at 10:37 | comment | added | Sextus Empiricus | @chux good point, I didn't know that sign (it's also not on my keyboard). I will add it if I have some more changes to make. | |
| Nov 29 at 10:27 | comment | added | chux | @SextusEmpiricus, Might as well add the per myriad (per ten thousand) sign: ‱ | |
| Nov 27 at 9:18 | comment | added | Federico Poloni | Let me add that there is also a cultural aspect to this issue. In my experience, Americans have an easier time with fractions and "x out of y", while everyone else in the world finds more natural to picture percentages in their mind. This is because the USA uses a measurement system where it is routine to work with units like "one third of an inch" and "3/4 cups of flour", and of course an inch is 1/12 of a foot to begin with. On the other hand, with the metric system it's more common to use decimals to express non-integer quantities. | |
| Nov 27 at 9:10 | comment | added | gerrit | Between my friend and myself, we have a 500.000.000 ppb preference against pineapple pizza. | |
| Nov 27 at 8:52 | comment | added | Sextus Empiricus | @user2390246 you got the joke, as you captured a mistake in it. | |
| Nov 27 at 8:51 | history | edited | Sextus Empiricus | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Nov 27 at 8:19 | comment | added | user2390246 | Did you really intend to say "in 9% of cases", because that seems an oddly specific number when you are clearly making a generalisation. Did you mean 10^2 rather than 10^1? Or have I missed a joke here? | |
| Nov 27 at 8:10 | comment | added | Stephan Kolassa | ... which "dialects" (the distinction is to a degree subjective, but I would consider them full languages, as does Wikipedia) were successfully écrasés by the French centralizing state, but we digress... | |
| Nov 27 at 7:44 | history | edited | Sextus Empiricus | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Nov 27 at 7:42 | comment | added | Sextus Empiricus | @StephanKolassa ah, it is 'pour cent' in French? Good nitpick. I assumed it was French because of the east/southern Arpitan and Occitan dialects which, I believe, use 'per cent'. | |
| Nov 27 at 7:31 | comment | added | Stephan Kolassa | Nitpick: "percent" is not derived from French, but from Latin per centum, "of a hundred". Modern French for "percent" is "pourcent". It may well be that older French may have been closer to "percent", but I would be quite surprised at any etymology that derived from French. | |
| Nov 26 at 17:03 | vote | accept | Donphag | ||
| Nov 26 at 16:32 | history | edited | Sextus Empiricus | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Nov 26 at 15:59 | history | edited | Sextus Empiricus | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Nov 26 at 15:53 | history | edited | Sextus Empiricus | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Nov 26 at 15:47 | history | answered | Sextus Empiricus | CC BY-SA 4.0 |