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Aug 4, 2013 at 17:10 vote accept Guest
Aug 3, 2013 at 19:55 answer added whuber timeline score: 6
Aug 3, 2013 at 18:48 comment added whuber Just to be clear: it seems the question makes sense only in the case where (a) there is a single predictor $X$ (in addition to the implicit constant) and (b) $X$ is a binary variable. Otherwise, logistic regression of $X$ against $Y$ cannot be done.
Aug 3, 2013 at 18:02 comment added Guest @gung thanks for the reference! I found your explanation of the linear case very lucid, but my question is how much of it carries over to the non-linear case of logistic regression.
Aug 3, 2013 at 15:07 answer added gung - Reinstate Monica timeline score: 6
Aug 3, 2013 at 14:57 comment added gung - Reinstate Monica Although you already seem to understand the correlation / linear regression case, you may (or may not) still find it interesting to read my answer here: What is the difference between linear regression on y with x and x with y?, which discusses that issue.
Aug 3, 2013 at 14:53 history edited gung - Reinstate Monica CC BY-SA 3.0
clarified question in title; formatted; light editing
S Aug 3, 2013 at 14:32 history suggested Eric Peterson CC BY-SA 3.0
improved formatting
Aug 3, 2013 at 14:14 review Suggested edits
S Aug 3, 2013 at 14:32
Aug 3, 2013 at 14:07 review First posts
Aug 3, 2013 at 14:17
Aug 3, 2013 at 13:51 history asked Guest CC BY-SA 3.0