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The difficulty clearly comes because $X$ and $Y$ are corellated (I assume $(X,Y)$ is jointly gaussian, as Aniko) and you can't make a difference (as in @svadali's answer) or a ratio (as in Standard Fisher-Snedecor "F-test") because those would be of dependent $\chi^2$ distribution, and because you don't know what this dependence is which make it difficult to derive the distribution under $H_0$.

I show that it is possible to use the Fisher-Snedecor Test together with a test on the slope such as the one suggested by @shabbychef because of a simple property of 2D gaussian vectors.

Fisher-Snedecor Test: If for $i=1,2$ $(Z^i_{1},\dots,Z^i_{n_i} )$ iid gaussian random variables with empirical unbiased variance $\hat{\lambda}^2_i$ and true variance $\lambda^2_i$, then it is possible to test if $\lambda_1=\lambda_2$ using the fact that, under the null,

It uses the fact that $$R=\frac{\hat{\lambda}_X^2}{\hat{\lambda}_Y^2}$$ follows a Fisher-Snedecor distribution $F(n_1-1,n_2-1)$

A simple property of 2D gaussian vector Let us denote by $$R(\theta) = \begin{bmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\ \sin \theta & \cos \theta \\ \end{bmatrix} $$ It is clear that there exists $\lambda_1,\lambda_2>0$ $\epsilon_1$, $\epsilon_2$ two independent gaussian $\mathcal{N}(0,\lambda_i^2)$ such that

$$\begin{bmatrix} X \\ Y \end{bmatrix} = R(\theta)\begin{bmatrix} \epsilon_1 \\ \epsilon_2 \end{bmatrix} $$ and that we have $$Var(X)-Var(Y)=(\lambda_1^2-\lambda_2^2)(\cos^2 \theta -\sin^2 \theta) $$

Testing of $Var(X)=Var(Y)$ can be done through testing if ( $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ or $\theta=\pi/4 \; mod \; [\pi/2]$)

Conclusion (Answer to the question) Testing for $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ is easely done by using ACP (to decorrelate) and Fisher Scnedecor test. Testing $\theta=\pi/4 [mod \; \pi/2]$ is done by testing if $|\beta_1|=1$ in the linear regression $ Y=\beta_1 X+\sigma\epsilon$ (I assume $Y$ and $X$ are centered).

Testing wether $\left ( \lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2 \text{ or }\theta=\pi/4 [mod \; \pi/2]\right )$ at level $\alpha$ is done by testing if $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ at level $\alpha/3$ or if $|\beta_1|=1$ at level $\alpha/3$.

The difficulty clearly comes because $X$ and $Y$ are corellated (I assume $(X,Y)$ is jointly gaussian, as Aniko) and you can't make a difference (as in @svadali's answer) or a ratio (as in Standard Fisher-Snedecor "F-test") because those would be of dependent $\chi^2$ distribution, and because you don't know what this dependence is which make it difficult to derive the distribution under $H_0$.

My answer relies on Equation (1) below. Because the difference in variance can be factorized with a difference in eigenvalues and a difference in rotation angle the test of equality can be declined into two tests. I show that it is possible to use the Fisher-Snedecor Test together with a test on the slope such as the one suggested by @shabbychef because of a simple property of 2D gaussian vectors.

Fisher-Snedecor Test: If for $i=1,2$ $(Z^i_{1},\dots,Z^i_{n_i} )$ iid gaussian random variables with empirical unbiased variance $\hat{\lambda}^2_i$ and true variance $\lambda^2_i$, then it is possible to test if $\lambda_1=\lambda_2$ using the fact that, under the null,

It uses the fact that $$R=\frac{\hat{\lambda}_X^2}{\hat{\lambda}_Y^2}$$ follows a Fisher-Snedecor distribution $F(n_1-1,n_2-1)$

A simple property of 2D gaussian vector Let us denote by $$R(\theta) = \begin{bmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\ \sin \theta & \cos \theta \\ \end{bmatrix} $$ It is clear that there exists $\lambda_1,\lambda_2>0$ $\epsilon_1$, $\epsilon_2$ two independent gaussian $\mathcal{N}(0,\lambda_i^2)$ such that

$$\begin{bmatrix} X \\ Y \end{bmatrix} = R(\theta)\begin{bmatrix} \epsilon_1 \\ \epsilon_2 \end{bmatrix} $$ and that we have $$Var(X)-Var(Y)=(\lambda_1^2-\lambda_2^2)(\cos^2 \theta -\sin^2 \theta) \;\; [1]$$

Testing of $Var(X)=Var(Y)$ can be done through testing if ( $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ or $\theta=\pi/4 \; mod \; [\pi/2]$)

Conclusion (Answer to the question) Testing for $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ is easely done by using ACP (to decorrelate) and Fisher Scnedecor test. Testing $\theta=\pi/4 [mod \; \pi/2]$ is done by testing if $|\beta_1|=1$ in the linear regression $ Y=\beta_1 X+\sigma\epsilon$ (I assume $Y$ and $X$ are centered).

Testing wether $\left ( \lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2 \text{ or }\theta=\pi/4 [mod \; \pi/2]\right )$ at level $\alpha$ is done by testing if $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ at level $\alpha/3$ or if $|\beta_1|=1$ at level $\alpha/3$.

The difficulty clearly comes because $X$ and $Y$ are corellated (I assume $(X,Y)$ is jointly gaussian, as Aniko) and you can't make a difference (as in @svadali's answer) or a ratio (as in Standard Fisher-Snedecor "F-test") because those would be of dependent $\chi^2$ distribution, and because you don't know what this dependence is which make it difficult to derive the distribution under $H_0$.

I show that it is possible to use the Fisher-Snedecor Test together with a test on the slope such as the one suggested by @shabbychef because of a simple property of 2D gaussian vectors.

Fisher-Snedecor Test: If for $i=1,2$ $(Z^i_{1},\dots,Z^i_{n_i} )$ iid gaussian random variables with empirical unbiased variance $\hat{\lambda}^2_i$ and true variance $\lambda^2_i$, then it is possible to test if $\lambda_1=\lambda_2$ using the fact that, under the null,

It uses the fact that $$R=\frac{\hat{\lambda}_X^2}{\hat{\lambda}_Y^2}$$ follows a Fisher-Snedecor distribution $F(n_1-1,n_2-1)$

A simple property of 2D gaussian vector Let us denote by $$R(\theta) = \begin{bmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\ \sin \theta & \cos \theta \\ \end{bmatrix} $$ It is clear that there exists $\lambda_1,\lambda_2>0$ $\epsilon_1$, $\epsilon_2$ two independent gaussian $\mathcal{N}(0,\lambda_i^2)$ such that

$$\begin{bmatrix} X \\ Y \end{bmatrix} = R(\theta)\begin{bmatrix} \epsilon_1 \\ \epsilon_2 \end{bmatrix} $$ and that we have $$Var(X)-Var(Y)=(\lambda_1^2-\lambda_2^2)(\cos^2 \theta -\sin^2 \theta) $$

Testing of $Var(X)=Var(Y)$ can be done through testing if ( $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ or $\theta=\pi/4 \; mod \; [\pi/2]$)

Conclusion (Answer to the question) Testing fo $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ is easely done by using ACP (to decorrelate) and Fisher Scnedecor test. Testing $\theta=\pi/4 [mod \; \pi/2]$ is done by testing if $|\beta_1|=1$ in the linear regression $ Y=\beta_1 X+\sigma\epsilon$ (I assume $Y$ and $X$ are centered).

Testing wether $\left ( \lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2 \text{ or }\theta=\pi/4 [mod \; \pi/2]\right )$ at level $\alpha$ is done by testing if $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ at level $\alpha/3$ or if $|\beta_1|=1$ at level $\alpha/3$.

The difficulty clearly comes because $X$ and $Y$ are corellated (I assume $(X,Y)$ is jointly gaussian, as Aniko) and you can't make a difference (as in @svadali's answer) or a ratio (as in Standard Fisher-Snedecor "F-test") because those would be of dependent $\chi^2$ distribution, and because you don't know what this dependence is which make it difficult to derive the distribution under $H_0$.

I show that it is possible to use the Fisher-Snedecor Test together with a test on the slope such as the one suggested by @shabbychef because of a simple property of 2D gaussian vectors.

Fisher-Snedecor Test: If for $i=1,2$ $(Z^i_{1},\dots,Z^i_{n_i} )$ iid gaussian random variables with empirical unbiased variance $\hat{\lambda}^2_i$ and true variance $\lambda^2_i$, then it is possible to test if $\lambda_1=\lambda_2$ using the fact that, under the null,

It uses the fact that $$R=\frac{\hat{\lambda}_X^2}{\hat{\lambda}_Y^2}$$ follows a Fisher-Snedecor distribution $F(n_1-1,n_2-1)$

A simple property of 2D gaussian vector Let us denote by $$R(\theta) = \begin{bmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\ \sin \theta & \cos \theta \\ \end{bmatrix} $$ It is clear that there exists $\lambda_1,\lambda_2>0$ $\epsilon_1$, $\epsilon_2$ two independent gaussian $\mathcal{N}(0,\lambda_i^2)$ such that

$$\begin{bmatrix} X \\ Y \end{bmatrix} = R(\theta)\begin{bmatrix} \epsilon_1 \\ \epsilon_2 \end{bmatrix} $$ and that we have $$Var(X)-Var(Y)=(\lambda_1^2-\lambda_2^2)(\cos^2 \theta -\sin^2 \theta) $$

Testing of $Var(X)=Var(Y)$ can be done through testing if ( $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ or $\theta=\pi/4 \; mod \; [\pi/2]$)

Conclusion (Answer to the question) Testing for $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ is easely done by using ACP (to decorrelate) and Fisher Scnedecor test. Testing $\theta=\pi/4 [mod \; \pi/2]$ is done by testing if $|\beta_1|=1$ in the linear regression $ Y=\beta_1 X+\sigma\epsilon$ (I assume $Y$ and $X$ are centered).

Testing wether $\left ( \lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2 \text{ or }\theta=\pi/4 [mod \; \pi/2]\right )$ at level $\alpha$ is done by testing if $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ at level $\alpha/3$ or if $|\beta_1|=1$ at level $\alpha/3$.

The difficulty clearly comes because $X$ and $Y$ are corellated (I assume $(X,Y)$ is jointly gaussian, as Aniko) and you can't make a difference (as in @svadali's answer) or a ratio (as in Standard Fisher-Snedecor "F-test") because those would be of dependent $\chi^2$ distribution, and because you don't know what this dependence is which make it difficult to derive the distribution under $H_0$.

I show that it is possible to use the Fisher-Snedecor Test together with a test on the slope such as the one suggested by @shabbychef because of a simple property of 2D gaussian vectors.

Fisher-Snedecor Test: If for $i=1,2$ $(Z^i_{1},\dots,Z^i_{n_i} )$ iid gaussian random variables with empirical unbiased variance $\hat{\lambda}^2_i$ and true variance $\lambda^2_i$, then it is possible to test if $\lambda_1=\lambda_2$ using the fact that, under the null,

It uses the fact that $$R=\frac{\hat{\lambda}_X^2}{\hat{\lambda}_Y^2}$$ follows a Fisher-Snedecor distribution $F(n_1-1,n_2-1)$

A simple property of 2D gaussian vector Let us denote by $$R(\theta) = \begin{bmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\ \sin \theta & \cos \theta \\ \end{bmatrix} $$ It is clear that there exists $\lambda_1,\lambda_2>0$ $\epsilon_1$, $\epsilon_2$ two independent gaussian $\mathcal{N}(0,\lambda_i^2)$ such that

$$\begin{bmatrix} X \\ Y \end{bmatrix} = R(\theta)\begin{bmatrix} \epsilon_1 \\ \epsilon_2 \end{bmatrix} $$ and that we have $$Var(X)-Var(Y)=(\lambda_1^2-\lambda_2^2)(\cos^2 \theta -\sin^2 \theta) $$

Testing of $Var(X)=Var(Y)$ can be done through testing $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ or $\theta=\pi/4 \; mod \; [\pi/2]$

Conclusion (Answer to the question) Testing fo $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ is easely done by using ACP (to decorrelate) and Fisher Scnedecor test. Testing $\theta=\pi/4 [mod \; \pi/2]$ is done by testing if $|\beta_1|=1$ in the linear regression $ Y=\beta_1 X+\sigma\epsilon$ (I assume $Y$ and $X$ are centered).

Testing wether $\left ( \lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2 \text{ or }\theta=\pi/4 [mod \; \pi/2]\right )$ at level $\alpha$ is done by testing if $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ at level $\alpha/3$ or if $|\beta_1|=1$ at level $\alpha/3$.

The difficulty clearly comes because $X$ and $Y$ are corellated (I assume $(X,Y)$ is jointly gaussian, as Aniko) and you can't make a difference (as in @svadali's answer) or a ratio (as in Standard Fisher-Snedecor "F-test") because those would be of dependent $\chi^2$ distribution, and because you don't know what this dependence is which make it difficult to derive the distribution under $H_0$.

I show that it is possible to use the Fisher-Snedecor Test together with a test on the slope such as the one suggested by @shabbychef because of a simple property of 2D gaussian vectors.

Fisher-Snedecor Test: If for $i=1,2$ $(Z^i_{1},\dots,Z^i_{n_i} )$ iid gaussian random variables with empirical unbiased variance $\hat{\lambda}^2_i$ and true variance $\lambda^2_i$, then it is possible to test if $\lambda_1=\lambda_2$ using the fact that, under the null,

It uses the fact that $$R=\frac{\hat{\lambda}_X^2}{\hat{\lambda}_Y^2}$$ follows a Fisher-Snedecor distribution $F(n_1-1,n_2-1)$

A simple property of 2D gaussian vector Let us denote by $$R(\theta) = \begin{bmatrix} \cos \theta & -\sin \theta \\ \sin \theta & \cos \theta \\ \end{bmatrix} $$ It is clear that there exists $\lambda_1,\lambda_2>0$ $\epsilon_1$, $\epsilon_2$ two independent gaussian $\mathcal{N}(0,\lambda_i^2)$ such that

$$\begin{bmatrix} X \\ Y \end{bmatrix} = R(\theta)\begin{bmatrix} \epsilon_1 \\ \epsilon_2 \end{bmatrix} $$ and that we have $$Var(X)-Var(Y)=(\lambda_1^2-\lambda_2^2)(\cos^2 \theta -\sin^2 \theta) $$

Testing of $Var(X)=Var(Y)$ can be done through testing if ( $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ or $\theta=\pi/4 \; mod \; [\pi/2]$)

Conclusion (Answer to the question) Testing fo $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ is easely done by using ACP (to decorrelate) and Fisher Scnedecor test. Testing $\theta=\pi/4 [mod \; \pi/2]$ is done by testing if $|\beta_1|=1$ in the linear regression $ Y=\beta_1 X+\sigma\epsilon$ (I assume $Y$ and $X$ are centered).

Testing wether $\left ( \lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2 \text{ or }\theta=\pi/4 [mod \; \pi/2]\right )$ at level $\alpha$ is done by testing if $\lambda_1^2=\lambda_2^2$ at level $\alpha/3$ or if $|\beta_1|=1$ at level $\alpha/3$.