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Sep 16, 2020 at 13:34 comment added igorkf If you do help(randomForest), it says: "rss: (regression only) “pseudo R-squared”: 1 - mse / Var(y)."
Jul 16, 2019 at 22:07 comment added Eric If the R-squared value is negative from the instrumental variable regression results, is there a way to supress this negative value and translate into a positive value for the sake of reporting? Refer to this link please: stata.com/support/faqs/statistics/two-stage-least-squares
Feb 18, 2011 at 21:25 comment added Stephen Turner If you have a reference other than the Seber/Lee textbook (not accessible to me) I would love to see a good explanation of how variation explained (i.e. 1-SSerr/SStot) differs from the squared correlation coefficient, or variance explained. Thanks again for the tip.
Feb 18, 2011 at 20:13 vote accept Stephen Turner
Feb 18, 2011 at 13:26 comment added cardinal @mpiktas, @chl, I'll try to expand on this a little more later today. Basically, there's a close (but, perhaps, slightly hidden) connection to hypothesis testing in the background. Even in a linear regression setting, if the constant vector is not in the column space of the design matrix, then the "correlation" definition will fail.
Feb 18, 2011 at 9:14 comment added chl (+1) Very elegant response, indeed.
Feb 18, 2011 at 8:22 comment added mpiktas +1, great answer. I always wondered why the original formula is used for $R^2$ instead of square of correlation. For linear regression it is the same, but when applied to other contexts it is always confusing.
Feb 18, 2011 at 4:21 history edited cardinal CC BY-SA 2.5
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Feb 18, 2011 at 3:31 history answered cardinal CC BY-SA 2.5