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Dec 4, 2013 at 21:58 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackStats/status/408354620302700544
Dec 4, 2013 at 21:51 vote accept JohnK
Dec 4, 2013 at 17:23 answer added whuber timeline score: 7
Dec 4, 2013 at 16:47 history edited JohnK CC BY-SA 3.0
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Dec 4, 2013 at 16:36 comment added wolfies Second time this has come up - lol - and I learn not from my errors :)
Dec 4, 2013 at 16:34 comment added JohnK @whuber It's the functions that I having trouble comprehending. And by functions I mean the difference between the cdf values$v_1,v_2$. Why is the unit interval split like that precisely?
Dec 4, 2013 at 16:31 comment added whuber And that's all the information you need: $F$ is the probability integral transform so indeed $F(Y_i)$ is distributed as the $i^\text{th}$ order statistic from a uniform distribution. For a non-rigorous (but nevertheless accurate) heuristic, think of this order statistic as dividing the interval $[0,1]$ into three bins of length $F(Y_i)$, $dY_i$ (an infinitesimal), and $1-F(Y_i)$, into which precisely $i-1$, $1$, and $n-i$ of the values fall (that's where the multinomial coefficients come from).
Dec 4, 2013 at 16:28 comment added JohnK @wolfies This is precisely what I am suggesting. This is a general condition that holds and people who have seen order statistics, tolerance intervals and coverages before might be able to help me derive it.
Dec 4, 2013 at 16:20 comment added JohnK @wolfies This is all the information I am given.
Dec 4, 2013 at 16:10 history asked JohnK CC BY-SA 3.0