Timeline for If C wins B 80% of the time, and B wins A 80% of the time, how often would C beat A?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jan 10, 2023 at 13:41 | answer | added | clp | timeline score: 1 | |
| Feb 4, 2014 at 16:44 | comment | added | Glen_b | If there's a single underlying thing (a single overall skill, like 'general ability at chess') that determines win probability and which is transitive, you may be able to get somewhere (it's still not enough to pin it down completely, you need more assumptions). If it's based on multiple separate abilities (or on one thing which isn't transitive), then you really can't say anything from the available information. | |
| Feb 4, 2014 at 16:38 | history | edited | Glen_b | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
fixed title change in body also
|
| Feb 4, 2014 at 15:29 | answer | added | omidi | timeline score: 6 | |
| Feb 4, 2014 at 15:14 | comment | added | whuber♦ | Winning is not necessarily transitive. Even in games of chance that is not the case: see Efron's intransitive dice. These ranking systems adopt particular models of winning but they are not appropriate for all forms of competition! (This is particularly true where contests are decided by a voting procedure.) Thus it's possible that your 80%, 80% numbers would be consistent with any winning probability for C against A. | |
| Feb 4, 2014 at 15:12 | review | First posts | |||
| Feb 4, 2014 at 15:14 | |||||
| Feb 4, 2014 at 15:03 | comment | added | Marc Claesen | By generalizing drunken rock-paper-scissors I'd say C wins 20% of the time over A. | |
| Feb 4, 2014 at 14:56 | history | asked | Silveri | CC BY-SA 3.0 |