Timeline for When estimating population mean, how can one half of the sample mean have lower risk than the sample mean itself?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Oct 31, 2014 at 14:52 | history | edited | amoeba | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
corrected the tag for consistency
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| Oct 30, 2014 at 23:58 | answer | added | amoeba | timeline score: 3 | |
| Oct 30, 2014 at 23:44 | history | edited | amoeba | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
made the title more specific, added tags, light editing
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| Feb 7, 2014 at 9:58 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackStats/status/431728557069725696 | ||
| Feb 6, 2014 at 15:32 | comment | added | whuber♦ | Create a simulation in which the true mean is a tiny fraction of the standard deviation and the sample size is small: that will cause the sample means typically to vary much further from the true mean than $0$ differs from the true mean. | |
| Feb 6, 2014 at 13:08 | review | First posts | |||
| Feb 6, 2014 at 13:11 | |||||
| Feb 6, 2014 at 12:50 | history | asked | user1885116 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |