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Apr 5, 2014 at 16:32 comment added usεr11852 Good answer (+1) but can you comment a bit further on how coding affects the relation? Why isn't the $K = K+\lambda I$-like the "universal relation behind this regularization idea? Unless we are talking about a Generalized Tikhonov regularization scheme (which OK, it is a superset of ridge regression) I can't see why coding would be an issue. (If this happens to be a long answer feel free to point me to papers)
Mar 20, 2014 at 18:58 vote accept papajohn
Mar 19, 2014 at 17:01 comment added Dikran Marsupial I use leave-one-out cross-validation for setting the regularisation parameter of ridge regression models, which can be performed very cheaply (see dx.doi.org/10.1016/j.neunet.2007.05.005 ). However, IIRC, the regularisation parameter for ridge regression typically corresponds to a parameter of the covariance function of the GP, however the exact relationship depends on how it is coded.
Mar 19, 2014 at 16:56 comment added papajohn CV Makes sense... but my objective is to simulate the GP so how would the choice be done in that case?
Mar 19, 2014 at 16:51 comment added Marc Claesen @papajohn typically through cross-validation.
Mar 19, 2014 at 15:17 comment added papajohn thanks I ll give it a try with theano and python! How would somebody chose the regularisation parameter? Bayesian optimisation until it fits?
Mar 19, 2014 at 15:07 comment added Dikran Marsupial use the same kernel as the covariance function of the GP, there is also a need to choose a suitable regularisation parameter for the KRR model to match the GP.
Mar 19, 2014 at 14:11 history edited Dikran Marsupial CC BY-SA 3.0
added 200 characters in body
Mar 19, 2014 at 14:06 history answered Dikran Marsupial CC BY-SA 3.0