Wikepedia, at Variance of Autoregressive model, mentions an expression of variance for an AR(1) process. I am learning signal processing (beginner level) and facing difficulty in understanding some basic relations. It shall be really helpful if the following doubts are answered.
An AR(1) process is defined by $$X_t = c+\theta X_{t-1} + \epsilon_t$$
where $\epsilon_t$ is a zero mean white Gaussian noise. We may compute expected values
$$E[X_t] = E[c] + \theta E[X_{t-1}]+E[\epsilon_t]$$
implying $E[X_t] = \mu = c/(1-\theta)$.
I am interested in the variance, which is defined as $$\text{Var}(X_t) = E[X_t^2] - \mu^2.$$ However, I read that $$\text{Var}(X_t) = \sigma_\epsilon^2/(1-\theta^2).$$
How is this derived?