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For my graduation thesis I am doing a study for the test-retest reliability of the tendon thickness of a particular muscle. So this study contains one rater and 70 subjects who have been tested at two moments in time. Globally the values seem to be correlating, however the ICC value is negative (-0,02). Now I understand I get this result because of the difference between subjects is greater than the difference between the test and retest moment. The question that keeps popping up is what to do with this value..? And does it still say something about the correlation between the test and retest moment. I have asked my supervisor but i didn't get a clear answer so i'm trying it this way. Hopefully somebody can help me out with this.

I used SPSS as the statistics program and used the Two way random model with absolute agreement.

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  • $\begingroup$ I think you have it the wrong way round, surely the difference within is greater, slightly, than between? $\endgroup$
    – mdewey
    Commented May 23, 2016 at 14:57
  • $\begingroup$ Did you conduct any sort of intervention or treatment between the timepoints? $\endgroup$ Commented May 23, 2016 at 15:33
  • $\begingroup$ No there was approximately 20 minutes in between the test where they just sat down relaxing that muscle.. so no intervention or treatment. It may be possible that the assessing of this muscle is just hard to do twice in the same way though. But other than that the difference is greater within the subjects than between the subjects I don's see anything to conclude from this. So i guess my question is more specific as in what can i conclude from this result? or is there a way i change the result by doing a different test? $\endgroup$
    – Broos
    Commented May 23, 2016 at 15:36

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First a note on Kodiologist's answer, in order to avoid confusion: It can be appropriate to use ICCs to estimate intra-rater reliability. The result yielded by ICCs will be different from (and potentially more or less useful than) what Pearson's $r$ would yield. Pearson's $r$ tests the linearity of the relationship between the two time points: $t_2 = m * t_1 + b$, whereas consistency ICCs test the additivity of the relationship: $t_2 = t_1 + b$, and absolute agreement ICCs test the equality of the relationship: $t_2 = t_1$.

Now to respond to the original question: ICCs work by partitioning the observed variance into different sources and comparing these sources. As you allude to in your question, it is a well-known property of ICCs that they can become spuriously low in the presence of low between-subjects variance (like mdewey, I think your question has this backwards). If we look at the model of the ICC formulation you are using (McGraw & Wong, 1996), that should make it more clear:

$$\rho=\frac{\sigma_s^2}{\sigma_s^2 + \sigma_t^2+\sigma_e^2}$$

where $\sigma_s^2$ is the between-subjects variance, $\sigma_t^2$ is the within-subjects variance, and $\sigma_e^2$ is the error or residual variance. When there is little variance within-subjects and due to error, $\rho$ should approach $1$. However, when there is very little between-subjects variance, it becomes almost impossible for $\rho$ to take on a high value, even if we would consider the within-subjects variance to be small. In practice, when estimating $\rho$ using sample mean squares (as in the formula below), low between-subjects variance can even cause an ICC to take on negative values.

$$ICC(A,1) = \frac{MS_s-MS_e}{MS_s + (k-1)MS_e+k/n(MS_t-MS_e)}$$

So what can you do about these negative values? If you are calculating many ICCs and averaging them, negative values can really drop the mean. If you believe that the ICC is spuriously negative (e.g., due to sampling error), it has been suggested (e.g., by Bartko, 1976) that resetting the ICC to $0$ can be an appropriate solution. Another option, as suggested by LeBreton et al. (2003) is to use a different measure of reliability that does not depend on correlation; their recommendation is the RWG score from James, Demaree, & Wolf (1984). This score compares the observed variance to a "null distribution" that could be expected to occur by chance.

References

Bartko, J. J. (1976). On various intraclass correlation reliability coefficients. Psychological Bulletin, 83(5), 762–765.

James, L. R., Demaree, R. G., & Wolf, G. (1984). Estimating within-group interrater reliability with and without response bias. Journal of Applied Psychology, 69(1), 85–98.

LeBreton, J. M., Burgess, J. R. D., Kaiser, R. B., Atchley, E. K., & James, L. R. (2003). The restriction of variance hypothesis and interrater reliability and agreement: Are ratings from multiple sources really dissimilar? Organizational Research Methods, 6(1), 80–128.

McGraw, K. O., & Wong, S. P. (1996). Forming inferences about some intraclass correlation coefficients. Psychological Methods, 1(1), 30–46.

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    $\begingroup$ Good question, gung. The formula above is the theoretical model using population values. In practice, the ICC is typically estimated using sample mean squares from ANOVA. In this case, it should become more clear how a negative number is possible (i.e., through subtraction). $$ICC = \frac{MS_s-MS_e}{MS_s + (k-1)MS_e+k/n(MS_t-MS_e)}$$ $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 23, 2016 at 17:10
  • $\begingroup$ I also want to be clear that the problem is a low value of $\sigma_s^2$ not a low value of $\sigma_t^2$. $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 23, 2016 at 17:14
  • $\begingroup$ Also, you mention that the ICC may or may not be right for the OP's situation. From the description, my first thought would be to use the methods of Bland & Altman. What do you think about that? (I notice that you didn't mention it.) $\endgroup$ Commented Sep 23, 2016 at 17:15
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I don't think intraclass correlation is an appropriate way to measure retest reliability. A better way is to look at the average squared (or absolute) difference between the time-1 and time-2 measurements and compare this to the between-subjects variance (or mean absolute deviation) at time 2.

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  • $\begingroup$ Admitted that normally it wouldn't be a reliable test since there is difference over time. My fault could be that I named it wrong so see of it as Intraclass reliability/Intratester reliablity since the time in between test and retest is 15 minutes or so... What would you do if you get a negative value out of that situation? $\endgroup$
    – Broos
    Commented May 23, 2016 at 18:32
  • $\begingroup$ Just to be sure, precisely what quantity (which you've called "ICC", presumably short for "intraclass correlation") are you using, and why are you using it instead of a more conventional way to measure retest reliability? $\endgroup$ Commented May 23, 2016 at 18:35
  • $\begingroup$ after excluding the quantity is 59 subjects. ICC does mean intraclass correlation coefficient in this case. Well my University approved that I did it this way since it has been done before apparently.. You have made me curious about the 'more conventional way' you mentioned. Could you be more specific about this one? $\endgroup$
    – Broos
    Commented May 24, 2016 at 11:06
  • $\begingroup$ The quantity I was asking about is the formula you're using for intraclass correlation, not your sample size. More conventional approaches to measuring retest reliability include Pearson correlation and what I described in my answer above. $\endgroup$ Commented May 24, 2016 at 14:07
  • $\begingroup$ Its clear to me what you mean with the conventional approaches. the statistic program I use is SPSS, so I perform a reliability analysis. As statistics I use the Intraclass correlation coefficient. The model for this is the two way random model with absolute agreement. Confidence interval is set up at 95% and test value is set as 0. I guess this would then be my 'quantity' ? $\endgroup$
    – Broos
    Commented May 24, 2016 at 20:29

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