Does minimizing the $RSS$ in your model always equate to minimizing the $MSE$ as $MSE=\frac{1}{n}\cdot RSS$?
2 Answers
Yes, yes it does: This is a trivial application of optimisation rules. So long as $n$ is constant (i.e., does not depend on $\theta$) then for any objective function $F$ and any positive function $h$ you have:
$$\underset{\theta \in \Theta}{\text{arg min }} F(\theta) = \underset{\theta \in \Theta}{\text{arg min }} h(n) F(\theta).$$
For your particular case you have:
$$\underset{\theta \in \Theta}{\text{arg min }} \text{RSS}(\theta) = \underset{\theta \in \Theta}{\text{arg min }} \frac{1}{n} \cdot \text{RSS}(\theta) = \underset{\theta \in \Theta}{\text{arg min }} \text{MSE}(\theta).$$
(Note that in both cases it is the argument that minimises the function that remains unchanged. The actual minimised function value is changed by the corresponding multiplicative constant.)
MSE is just RSS divided by the sample size, so, for a given sample, anything that optimizes one of them will also optimize the other