In the optimization problem in SVM to compute the margin, we use Lagrange multipliers to insert the constraint:
$$L(w,b,\alpha)= \frac{1}{\lambda}|w| - \sum \alpha (y_i(w*x_i+b) -1)$$
Now we want to compute the $\alpha$. It is stated that $\alpha$ for all non-support vectors is 0. How is this statement derived from the above equation? How can that be proved?
UPDATE:
If we solve the dual of an SVM using the KKT conditions we have:
$$w_i = \frac{1}{\lambda} \Sigma_{i=1}^{N}\alpha_i y_i x_i$$
One of the main goals of using the dual, is that $w$ can be computed more efficiently because of the above equation and the fact, that most $i\in[N]$, $\alpha_i = 0$, and therefore we just have to just focus on $\{x_i,y_i:\alpha_i \neq 0\}$, which is a small part.
My question is: Why are most of $\alpha_i, i\in [N]$ = 0?
Geometrically it is said, that $\alpha_i\neq 0$ for exactly the data points which lie on the hyperplanes $\{x:w^Tx - b = 1 \}$ or $\{x:w^Tx - b = -1 \}$. I am not sure that this is true. If this is the case, how can that be proven?