For a particular economic sector, I want to assess whether expenditures on technology, equipment, and construction (which I will call capital expenditures) are cost-increasing or cost-decreasing relative to labour costs. That is, it could be the case that capital serves as a strong substitute for labour and leads to decreased overall costs. Alternatively, it could be the case that capital investments require significant additional labour for upkeep and do not offer much substitutive value and thus are relatively cost-increasing.
My supervisor recommended regressing total expenditures for firm $i$ in year $t$ on the capital-to-labour ratio for that firm in that year, while controlling for that firm's production in that year.
Thus I am using the following econometric model:
$ TotalExpenditures_{it} = \alpha_i + \beta_1(K/L)_{it}+\beta_2Production_{it}+\beta_3Controls_{it}+\epsilon_{it} $
However, total expenditures are obviously a function of capital and labour expenditures, since in our data,
$ TotalExpenditures_{it} = K_{it} + L_{it} +Other_{it} $
Are there issues with regressing a function of independent variables on another function of independent variables? It feels wrong to me, but I can't pinpoint what the issue is. I'm not sure if our model is answering the question of interest.
One issue I do see is that $Other_{it}$ is clearly correlated with $K_{it}$, since $K_{it} = TotalExpenditures_{it} - L_{it} - Other_{it} $ so we would have to control for this, right? Beyond that, are there major issues here?
Note: I have read Dependent variable is a function of independent variables; can I sensibly include them in a regression? , but am not sure that it totally applies to my particular example.