For simplicity, let's restrict multiple linear regression case to 2 predictors, $x_1, x_2$. You regress $y$ on each individually and get $\hat{\beta}_1, \hat{\beta}_2$. Now you regress $y$ on both and get $\hat{\gamma}_1, \hat{\gamma}_2$.
So I know if $(x_1 - \bar{x}_1 \perp \bar{x}_2$, then $\hat{\beta}_i = \hat{\gamma}_i$, but if they're not orthogonal, what can be said about the relationship between them?
If in each of the simple linear regression cases, the slope was positive, i.e., $\hat{\beta}_1, \hat{\beta_2} > 0$, can we expect $\hat{\gamma}_1, \hat{\gamma}_2 > 0$?
I just asked a similar question on the math SE (https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3791992/relationship-between-projection-of-y-onto-x-1-x-2-individually-vs-projecti), but I'm looking to gain more of a linear algebra intuition from answers to that question. Here, I am hoping for a broader intuition (both statistical and theoretical) of the relationship between simple and multiple linear regression coefficients.