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When can we reasonably assume a sequence of r.v.'s is IID in real life scenarios?

My question is based off the following example from Wasserman's All of Statistics:

Suppose we test a prediction method, a neural net for example, on a set of $n$ new cases. Let $X_i=1$ if the predictor is wrong and $X_i=0$ if the predictor is right. Then $\bar{X}_n = n^{-1}\sum_{i=1}^n X_i$ is the observed error rate. Each $X_i$ may be regarded as a Bernoulli with unknown mean $p$. Intuitively, we expect that $\bar{X}_n$ should be close to $p$. How likely is $\bar{X}_n$ to be within $\epsilon$ of $p$? We have that $V(\bar{X}_n)=V(X_1)/n=p(1-p)/n$ and

$$P(|\bar{X}_n-p|>\epsilon \leq V(\bar{X}_n/\epsilon^2) = p(1-p)/n\epsilon^2 \leq 1/4n\epsilon^2$$

where the last equation follows from Chebyshev's inequality.

In the above example, the variance of the sum of Bernoulli variables is calculated by assuming they are IID. Why is it reasonable to make this assumption?

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    $\begingroup$ Think symmetry: Before seeing the data, to you, all those $X_i$'s are "equal", play the same role. Your information/assumptions/preconceptions/illusions about them are the same. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18, 2020 at 0:06
  • $\begingroup$ That makes sense to me. Since my question has already been asked by someone else, I will delete this one. Thank you! $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18, 2020 at 0:09
  • $\begingroup$ Please don't delete posts marked as duplicates. They are still seen as useful in the system! $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18, 2020 at 0:27

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