In Wasserman's "All of Statistics" p.26 he gives an example of an "independent event" as "flipping a fair coin twice", where the first flip has no effect on the second flip (because the coin has no memory). He then immediately gives the formal definition of independence:
$$\mathbb{P}(A \cap B ) = \mathbb{P}(A)\mathbb{P}(B)$$
where $A$ and $B$ are "events" (subsets of a sample space $\Omega$ with probability $\mathbb{P}(\Omega) = 1$).
He then goes on to show that a "fair die" has independent rolls:
Let $A=\{2,4,6\}$ and $B=\{1,2,3,4\}$.
So $\mathbb{P}(A) = \frac{1}{2}$ and $\mathbb{P}(B) = \frac{2}{3}$.
Then $A \cap B = \{2,4\}$ and $\mathbb{P}(A \cap B) = \frac{1}{3}$.
$A$ and $B$ are independent because $\frac{1}{3} = \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{2}{3}$.
But if we use just a slightly different example, we get a different result:
Let $A=\{2,4,6\}$ and $B=\{1,2,4\}$.
So $\mathbb{P}(A) = \frac{1}{2}$ and $\mathbb{P}(B) = \frac{1}{2}$.
Again, $A \cap B = \{2,4\}$ and $\mathbb{P}(A \cap B) = \frac{1}{3}$.
$A$ and $B$ are not independent because $\frac{1}{3} \ne \frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2}$.
I feel like there's some conflation in terminology here between independent sequential events, and conditional probability; in the first calculation the events are "independent" in the sense $P(A|B) = P(A)$ and $P(B|A) = P(B)$, but in the second case this does not hold. On the other hand, sequential rolls of a dice with a flat probability distribution are indeed "independent events".
Am I misunderstanding what he's trying to show with the example? Can this independence formula apply for sequential events, and if so, how could we notate that?